Saurabh Shethia
Asked March 13, 2019

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X promise to transfer house in name of y provided y gives divorce to her husband and marry him. It is a valid contract?

Answers 2

Dear Sir,

In Indian Contract Act, 1872, or in any Act for that matter ‘what is legal’ is defined and elaborated. However, the word ‘moral’ is not found any where in any Act.

Further, moral or immoral depends on persons righteousness, but no law can impose morality on a person in making any agreements.

Hence, from the view point of IC Act, 1872, the word ‘immoral agreement’ has no relevance.

But it goes with unsaying such agreements are not enforceable which breaks the marriage.

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Dear Sir,

 

In Indian Contract Act, 1872, or in any Act for that matter ‘what is legal’ is defined and elaborated. However, the word ‘moral’ is not found any where in any Act.

Further, moral or immoral depends on persons righteousness, but no law can impose morality on a person in making any agreements.

Hence, from the view point of IC Act, 1872, the word ‘immoral agreement’ has no relevance.

 

But it goes with unsaying such agreements are not enforceable which breaks the marriage.

Agree Comment 0 Agrees 6 days ago
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No. This is not a valid contract as this does not hold any sanctity under the eyes of the law.

Agree Comment 0 Agrees 5 days ago
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