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Anonymous
Asked May 13, 2019

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A has sold a property vide registered sale deed to B in 1972. A and B dead. A's legal heir transfered the same property to me me in 2010 vide registered sale deed. Mutation stands in my name since then. Subsequently when I came to know about the transaction between A & B, I requested B' s all legal heir to give a consent deed that they do not have any objection on The transfer happened in 2010 in my favour and such consent deed should be treated as a part of same document of transfer which happened in 2010 in favour of me. Consent deed executed. Such consent deed also registered one. But the consent deed mentioned all previous transfers happened. But it never mentioned that the B's legal heir transfering their rights to me. It merely stamped with rs 250.Please advise me whether vide the consent deed I became the lawful owner of the property transfered to me in 2010. Whether I can transfer the property to other as a owner

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