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Prabhat Kumar
Asked October 11, 2019

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  • 1 Answer
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Hello Sir, Please help me in understanding my below query: * I am planning to purchase a flat from a vendor who has a married daughter settled in US and an unmarried son working in Pune. The property is in the name of Vendor(Father) who is selling me. My question is, 1. Do I need to get the children signatures at the time of registration? 2. If Yes, then what should I do to get their signatures during registration? What formats are valid to avoid future disputes? Kindly do the needful. regards Prabhat Kumar Hyderabad

Answer 1

If the property is in the name of vendor and this property is free from all encumbrance then there is no requirement of permission of any body for sale of property.  If the person who is the owner of the property is heel & healthy physically and mentally then he can sell this property without any prior permission of his children if he was purchased from his own income meaning thereby that property should not be ancestors property. 

Agree Comment 0 Agrees over 1 year ago

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