Anonymous
Asked October 28, 2016

violation of agreement

  • 1 Answer
  • 570 Views

I was working with a US multinational publishing company as an independent contractor until March 2015. They voided my contract UNDER BREACH OF CONTRACT (I was/am ok with that because they had a point) then and withheld all my money (royalties) and told me that they won't pay me anything. Now they were sending me messages (Oct 2016) regarding Tax etc. and telling me to fill in the forms etc. They kept sending me these type of messages and ultimately told me that I had violated their agreement before since I am not eligible to work with them or get my unpaid money. I want to sue them for disturbing me emotionally and also I want to share that they have monopoly in the business and they are using their influence to get me out of business completely by influencing other smaller businesses in the section. My contract with other two smaller companies have been voided recently without a proper cause mentioned exploiting exclusive jurisdiction clause (Washington, USA).

Answer 1

Since they are forcing and intimidating you, you can file a case against them for criminal force and criminal intimidation under IPC, 1860. Please find the provisions below:-

 

Section 503 in The Indian Penal Code

503. Criminal intimidation.—Whoever threatens another with any injury to his person, reputation or property, or to the person or reputation of any one in whom that person is interested, with intent to cause alarm to that person, or to cause that person to do any act which he is not legally bound to do, or to omit to do any act which that person is legally entitled to do, as the means of avoiding the execution of such threat, commits criminal intim­idation. Explanation.—A threat to injure the reputation of any deceased person in whom the person threatened is interested, is within this section.

 

Section 350 in The Indian Penal Code

350. Criminal force.—Whoever intentionally uses force to any person, without that person’s consent, in order to the committing of any offence, or intending by the use of such force to cause, or knowing it to be likely that by the use of such force he will cause injury, fear or annoyance to the person to whom the force is used, is said to use criminal force to that other. 

Agree Comment 0 Agrees almost 4 years ago

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